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Problem 12
If \(\angle \mathrm{x}\) has a measure of \(40^{\circ}\) and \(\angle \mathrm{y}\) has a measure of \(40^{\circ}\), prove $\mathrm{m} \angle \mathrm{x}=\mathrm{m} \angle \mathrm{y}$ using the standard two column proof method.
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