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Q-37E
Expert-verifiedQuestion: Let
Show that fn(0)=0 for n=0,1,2.... and hence that the Maclaurin series for f(x) is 0+0+0+.... , which converges for all x but is equal to f(x) only when x=0 . This is an example of a function possessing derivatives of all orders (at x0 =0 ), whose Taylor series converges, but the Taylor series (about x0 =0) does not converge to the original function! Consequently, this function is not analytic at x=0.
Function is not analytic at x=0 .
For a function f(x) the Taylor series expansion about a point x0 is given by, .
Let , then f(x)=e .
For , the derivatives of f are:
f'(x)=e
f''(x)=e
f'''(x)=e
Note that f(n)(x) will be of the form e p(x), where p(x) is some polynomial.
From the definition of f it follows that, f(0)=0 .
We need to calculate the derivative at x=0 by definition,
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